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Enjoyable game. The story is intriguing. Just learn when to use "I" and "ME". As a direct object it should be "It's probably best the class doesn't know about your mom and me" not "you mom and I." It just makes you sound ignorant when you're trying to sound proper. As the subject of the sentence it would be the personal pronoun, such as "You mom and I slept together." A subject is always followed by a verb, in this case, "slept." Would say "Me slept." No, that sounds retarded, neither would you say, "Give it to I." That also sounds ignorant. 

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actually your mom and I is the correct way grammatically 

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not as an object, only as a subject. Look it up.

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no, the modern AMERICAN dialect adaptation to use "you and me" when listing yourself and another person, is incorrect, and not proper English. "you and I" is always correct.

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you need to research more. As an English teach with a lifetime of experience you use the pronoun appropriate to the part of speech. As a direct object, its me, as a subject its I.  Its always been this way, it has not changed. Verify your information before stating inaccuracies. Me go to store today. Will you go with I? Wrong wrong wrong. 

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your argument is invalid
butt seriously, your argument is a fallacy of false equivalence, that is indeed a grammatical rule, but not the one that applies in this grammatical situation. you should go get a refund on your ESL-china work permit.you know what else is grammatically wrong? - "wrong wrong wrong" is wrong, you forgot the commas, and the syntax is doubly redundant.

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you're still wrong. Me  is used when its a direct object,  I  is used when the subject.  That's all there is to it. 

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Wrong™ 
so long and thanks for all the memes :D 

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you are wrong and you're afraid to prove it to yourself.  https://www.grammar.com/me_vs._i

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that is incorrect, as it is american dialect, and is not english

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https://medium.com/@The_YUNiversity/q-is-it-you-and-i-or-you-and-me-2ee3cc312f0a.  Its easy to verify, so why do lamebrains post their lies without checking.

Ah, so you believe that William Shakespeare was an expert in the use of specifically 21st Century dialectical modern American English in the late 1500s, as was Charles Dickens in the mid 1800s, and as also Edgar Allen Poe in the early 1800s. They must have been great mediums of times to come and you yourself an expert historian and scholar of their works.

your fallacy of false equivalence has zero validity.
we are not discussing archaic authors who used English, we are discussing modern authors who use American Dialect.
this has already been stated plainly, maybe you should learn to read before trying to write?